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CTTAM Technical Examination - Civil Engineering Technology C.E.T Sample Questions (Q23-Q28):

NEW QUESTION # 23
Which of the following tests would most likely be used to determine if engineered fill was placed to meet contract specifications?

Answer: B

Explanation:
Engineered fill specifications are typically written in terms ofminimum relative compaction (RC)and an acceptable moisture range (often around optimum moisture content). Field verification therefore focuses on whether placed lift material achieves the specifiedin-place dry densityrelative to the laboratory maximum dry density (from Proctor testing). The compaction test (field density test) directly measures whether the fill meets the specified RC requirement. Civil engineering references describe that grading specifications set a minimum acceptable density (relative compaction) and acceptable water content range, and that the Proctor test establishes the laboratory maximum dry density and optimum moisture content used as the basis for compaction acceptance. Moisture checks alone do not confirm achieved density; sieve analysis is gradation, and triaxial testing is shear strength characterization rather than placement acceptance. Therefore, the most appropriate test to confirm engineered fill meets contract compaction requirements is acompaction test.


NEW QUESTION # 24
A site inspection reveals a beam that does not conform to Issued for Construction (IFC) drawings. What should be done?

Answer: A

Explanation:
When inspection identifies nonconforming work relative to IFC drawings, the inspector/technologist's role is todocumentthe condition (location, description, measurements, photos) andnotify the responsible design professional/engineerfor disposition. This aligns with formal quality control/assurance processes: field staff identify and record deviations; the engineer evaluates structural implications and issues written instructions (accept as-is, remediate, redesign, or replace). Acting unilaterally to remove a beam (option B) exceeds typical authority and may create safety and contractual issues. Simply filing without notification (C) fails to address a potentially serious structural deficiency. Rechecking the IFC calculations (D) is not the immediate construction control action; the priority is to initiate an engineering review of the nonconformance. Civil engineering project practice stresses maintaining complete inspection records and communicating significant issues through appropriate channels for corrective action. Therefore, the correct action isdocument the issue and notify the engineer.


NEW QUESTION # 25
Which of the following should be done as part of project status report preparation?

Answer: C

Explanation:
A project status report is used to communicatecurrent progress, risks, and forecast impactsversus the plan.
Supply chain and procurement items that can affect the schedule-especiallycritical materials/equipment- must be actively validated because delivery changes can directly create or remove schedule risk. Guidance on project status reporting commonly includes trackingchanges in delivery datesand their impacts as part of progress and risk reporting, rather than assuming original purchase order dates will hold. Confirming supplier delivery dates for critical items is a proactive control: it updates schedule forecasts, informs mitigation actions (expedite, resequence, alternate sourcing), and supports accurate stakeholder communication. Contractor pricing confirmation and currency checks may be relevant in certain contexts but are not the primary routine action for a status report, and "maintain original delivery dates" is specifically poor practice when delivery risk exists. Therefore, the correct step is torequest suppliers confirm delivery dates for critical items.


NEW QUESTION # 26
A project manager is aware of a faulty fall protection railing. The safety issue is reported but not remedied or documented. In the event of an incident, what is the maximum penalty for the first offence under the Occupational Health and Safety Act?

Answer: D

Explanation:
Under Alberta's Occupational Health and Safety (OHS) legislation, enforcement includes significant penalties for contraventions, especially where hazards like fall protection are involved and an incident occurs. Alberta's official guidance on convictions under OHS legislation states that for afirst offenceunder the OHS Act, fines can beup to $500,000and/orup to 6 months in prisonper violation (with additional daily fines possible if the offence continues). This directly matches the option describing a$500,000 fine and/or six months' imprisonment. The other options (loss of business licence, mandatory five-year imprisonment, etc.) are not the stated maximum first-offence penalty in the cited OHS information. Therefore, the correct maximum penalty for the first offence isOption C.


NEW QUESTION # 27
What personal protective equipment is most important when surveying near active traffic?

Answer: A

Explanation:
Surveying near live traffic exposes workers to struck-by hazards from vehicles and mobile equipment. Safety requirements for such environments prioritize making personnel conspicuous to drivers and equipment operators. The USACE Safety and Health Requirements Manual (EM 385-1-1) explicitly requireshigh- visibility apparel(minimum ANSI/ISEA Class 2) for workers such assurvey crews and inspectorswhen exposed to vehicular or equipment traffic, limited visibility, reduced visibility conditions, or when working close to traffic without protective barriers. This directly matches the scenario (surveying near active traffic) and identifies high-visibility apparel as the key PPE to reduce struck-by risk by improving detection and recognition of workers. While eye, hand, and hearing protection may be needed depending on hazards, the most critical single PPE item for traffic-adjacent surveying is thehigh-visibility vest/apparelrequired for worker visibility and traffic safety controls.


NEW QUESTION # 28
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